Solution
inverse laplace
Solution
Solution steps
Apply inverse transform rule:if then For
Popular Examples
sum from n=3 to infinity of e^{5-6n}(d^2y)/(dx^2)-(dy)/(dx)-2y=0derivative of tan(x)-1sec(x)derivative of integral of sqrt(y^2+1)tangent of y=sin(sin(x)),\at x=pitangent of
Frequently Asked Questions (FAQ)
What is inverse oflaplace 1/(s^2+2*pi*s+pi^2) ?
The answer to inverse oflaplace 1/(s^2+2*pi*s+pi^2) is e^{-pit}t